The Faith of Jesus ChristโโโA Brief Study
Iโd like to offer some thoughts upon a commonly used phrase that occurs in Paulโs epistles โ the faith of Jesus Christ. To whose faith does this refer? The word ฯฮนฯฯฮตฯฯ in the genative case may be taken in one of two ways โ objective or subjective. The predominent interpretation has usually been to take the phrase objectively as referring to our faith in Christ. However, many contemporary scholars have suggested that the phrase ought to be understood subjectively, as referring to Christโs faith and/or faithfulness. This latter way of reading the phrase is how many Primitive Baptists have traditionally understood the phrase as well. I would like to offer a few reasons as to why I am more inclined to understand this phrase as referring to Christโs faith, rather than ours.
Whose Faith Produces the Righteousness of God?
The first problem with understanding โthe faith of Jesus Christโ as a reference to the faith of the believer is that, as precious of a gift as my faith is, it is not that which produces the righteousness that I need in order to be justified in Godโs sight. Yet at least two Scriptures appear to clearly suggest that the โfaith of Jesus Christโ is the means whereby this righteousness is produced:
Romans 3:20โ22 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. (21) But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; (22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference
Philippians 3:7โ9 But what things were gain to me, those I counted loss for Christ. (8) Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, (9) And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith
So this first point seems rather obvious in my estimation. In Philippians 3:9 Paul is contrasting two different means of attaining righteousness โ either by the Law, or by the faith of Jesus Christ. My faith does not produce the perfect righteousness that God requires. However, Christโs faith, and/or faithfulness, absolutely does. It was his faith in God the Father and faithfulness in fulfilling the covenant which led to the accomplishment of his redemptive work, which produced an everlasting righteousness whereby his people could be declared righteous in Godโs sight.
The Problem of Tautology
Another problem that I find with taking this phrase as an objective genitive is the tautology that such a reading creates. Consider Paulโs statements in Romans 3:22 and Galatian 2:16:
Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference
Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
If โfaith of Jesus Christโ in these verses refers to us believing in Jesus Christ, these statements would become needlessly repititious. Try reading these verses with this understanding:
Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by believing in Jesus Christ, unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference
Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by believing in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by believing in Jesus Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Paulโs Use of โThe faith ofโโโโ
A final reason that I see for accepting the subjective reading of โfaith of Jesus Christโ is the simple fact that Paul uses the phrase โthe faith ofโโโโ consistently in the subjective sense, particularly in the book of Romans. Switching to an objective reading in Romans 3:22, therefore, would seem rather arbitrary. Consider the following verses in Romans 3 & 4:
Romans 3:3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?
This verse is obviously referring to Godโs faith and/or faithfulness
Romans 4:12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.
Romans 4:16 Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all
These verses clearly refer to Abrahamโs personal faith. If Paul mentions the faith of God, and he mentions the faith of Abraham, and both of these are understood in the subjective sense, then it would be rather arbitrary to take the faith of Jesus Christ in Romans 3:22 as referring to our faith in Christ.
Additionally, even in Romans 3:22, Paul uses the phrase โthe righteousness of Godโ, where the โrighteousnessโ is clearly that which is Godโs.
For these reasons, I currently take the position that โthe faith of Jesus Christโ is referring to Christโs faith.