The Faith of Jesus Christโ€Šโ€”โ€ŠA Brief Study

Iโ€™d like to offer some thoughts upon a commonly used phrase that occurs in Paulโ€™s epistles โ€” the faith of Jesus Christ. To whose faith does this refer? The word ฯ€ฮนฯƒฯ„ฮตฯ‰ฯ‚ in the genative case may be taken in one of two ways โ€” objective or subjective. The predominent interpretation has usually been to take the phrase objectively as referring to our faith in Christ. However, many contemporary scholars have suggested that the phrase ought to be understood subjectively, as referring to Christโ€™s faith and/or faithfulness. This latter way of reading the phrase is how many Primitive Baptists have traditionally understood the phrase as well. I would like to offer a few reasons as to why I am more inclined to understand this phrase as referring to Christโ€™s faith, rather than ours.

Whose Faith Produces the Righteousness of God?

The first problem with understanding โ€œthe faith of Jesus Christโ€ as a reference to the faith of the believer is that, as precious of a gift as my faith is, it is not that which produces the righteousness that I need in order to be justified in Godโ€™s sight. Yet at least two Scriptures appear to clearly suggest that the โ€œfaith of Jesus Christโ€ is the means whereby this righteousness is produced:

Romans 3:20โ€“22 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin. (21) But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets; (22) Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference

Philippians 3:7โ€“9 But what things were gain to me, those I counted loss for Christ. (8) Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, (9) And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith

So this first point seems rather obvious in my estimation. In Philippians 3:9 Paul is contrasting two different means of attaining righteousness โ€” either by the Law, or by the faith of Jesus Christ. My faith does not produce the perfect righteousness that God requires. However, Christโ€™s faith, and/or faithfulness, absolutely does. It was his faith in God the Father and faithfulness in fulfilling the covenant which led to the accomplishment of his redemptive work, which produced an everlasting righteousness whereby his people could be declared righteous in Godโ€™s sight.

The Problem of Tautology

Another problem that I find with taking this phrase as an objective genitive is the tautology that such a reading creates. Consider Paulโ€™s statements in Romans 3:22 and Galatian 2:16:

Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

If โ€œfaith of Jesus Christโ€ in these verses refers to us believing in Jesus Christ, these statements would become needlessly repititious. Try reading these verses with this understanding:

Romans 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by believing in Jesus Christ, unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference

Galatians 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by believing in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by believing in Jesus Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Paulโ€™s Use of โ€œThe faith ofโ€Šโ€”โ€Šโ€

A final reason that I see for accepting the subjective reading of โ€œfaith of Jesus Christโ€ is the simple fact that Paul uses the phrase โ€œthe faith ofโ€Šโ€”โ€Šโ€ consistently in the subjective sense, particularly in the book of Romans. Switching to an objective reading in Romans 3:22, therefore, would seem rather arbitrary. Consider the following verses in Romans 3 & 4:

Romans 3:3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?

This verse is obviously referring to Godโ€™s faith and/or faithfulness

Romans 4:12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.

Romans 4:16 Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all

These verses clearly refer to Abrahamโ€™s personal faith. If Paul mentions the faith of God, and he mentions the faith of Abraham, and both of these are understood in the subjective sense, then it would be rather arbitrary to take the faith of Jesus Christ in Romans 3:22 as referring to our faith in Christ.

Additionally, even in Romans 3:22, Paul uses the phrase โ€œthe righteousness of Godโ€, where the โ€œrighteousnessโ€ is clearly that which is Godโ€™s.

For these reasons, I currently take the position that โ€œthe faith of Jesus Christโ€ is referring to Christโ€™s faith.

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